While looking into Psalm 36 this morning (for a lecture later today) I noticed that the suggested ‘root’ of the word in question in Ps 36:3 (2 in English) is incorrect. Instead, another word altogether is right. Note the screenshot below:
The root to which Logos should direct readers is root II, not root I. I’ve sent along a note to the Logos folk but in the meanwhile, before it’s corrected there, researchers may wish to take note of the proper reading.
OTOH the LXX reads “ὅτι ἐδόλωσεν ἐνώπιον αὐτου”, which may suggest a textual problem of some sort, since δoλόω does not look like a natural translation for either Hebrew root, on a quick glance…
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